Objective Type Questions and Answers – Building Construction Materials and Techniques

 

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

CHAPTER 1

Properties of Construction Materials

1. Mass per unit volume of a homogeneous material is termed as

(a) Unit weight

(b) Specific gravity

(c) Density

(d) Porosity

(e) Density index

2. Spalling resistance of a material depends mainly on

(a) Coefficient of linear expansion of the material

(b) Coefficient of compression of the material

(c) Contraction property of the material

(d) Non-homogeneous property of the material

(e) Isotropic property of the material

3. Hygroscopicity of a material is the property of a material

(a) To absorb water through the pores

(b) To absorb water vapour from air

(c) To absorb pure air from the atmosphere

(d) To collect the dust from air

(e) To collect all the impurities in water

4. Various mechanical properties of a material are given below. Identify the wrong property.

(a) Elasticity

(b) Plasticity

(c) Conductivity

(d) Hardness

(e) Toughness

5. The hardest material is

(a) Quartz

(b) Calcide

(c) Talcum

(d) Rock-salt

(e) Diamond

6. Dielectric strength is the insulating capacity of a material against

(a) High temperature

(b) High voltage

(c) Low current

(d) Low resistance

(e) High density

8. Coercive force is the __________ which is necessary to neutralize completely the magnetism in an electromagnetic field.

(a) Tensile force

(b) Compressive force

(c) Magnetising force

(d) Shear force

(e) Neutralising force

7. Electrical conductivity is the reciprocal of

(a) Current

(b) Voltage

(c) Superconductivity

(d) Electrical resistivity

(e) Potential difference

9. Some of the chemical properties are given below. Choose the wrong one.

(a) Corrosion resistance

(b) Chemical composition

(c) Acidity

(d) Alkalinity

(e) Permeability

CHAPTER 2

Building Stones

1. Cooling and hardening of mortar magma resulted in the formation of

(a) Magna rock

(b) Metamorphic rock

(c) Intrusive rock

(d) Sedimentary rock

(e) Igneous rock

2. Sediments when subjected to heavy pressure undergo compaction and cementation, resulting in

(a) Metamorphic rocks

(b) Igneous rocks

(c) Extrusive rock

(d) Sedimentary rock

(e) Intrusive rocks

3. Metamorphic rock are given below. Choose the wrong one.

(a) Gneiss

(b) Schist

(c) Slate

(d) Sandstone

(e) Marble

4. Stratified structure is formed due to the splitting of a series of paralled layers of

(a) Metamorphic rocks

(b) Extrusive igneous rocks

(c) Sedimentary rocks

(d) Intrusive igneous rocks

(e) None of the above

5. Calcium carbonate or lime is the main constituent in this type of rock.

(a) Argillaceous rocks

(b) Calcareous rocks

(c) Siliceous rocks

(d) Foliated rocks

(e) Un-stratified rocks

6. Basalt is of __________ origin.

(a) Igneous rock

(b) Sedimentary rock

(c) Metamorphic rock

(d) Plutonic rock

(e) Stratified rock

7. Sandstone is

(a) Igneous rock

(b) Volcanic rock

(c) Sedimentary rock

(d) Metamorphic rock

(e) Plutonic rock

8. Marble is classified as

(a) Foliated rock

(b) Metamorphic rock

(c) Igneous rock

(d) Sedimentary rock

(e) Volcanic rock

9. Methods of quarrying are given below. Choose the wrong-one.

(a) Digging

(b) Heating

(c) Wedging

(d) Dressing

(e) Blasting

10. Agencies which are responsible for the deterioration of stones are rain, wind, chemicals, vegetable growth and __________

(a) Living organism

(b) Moon light

(c) Colour of the stone

(d) Grains of the rock

(e) Origin of rock

11. Acid test on stones is conducted to find the

(a) Hardness

(b) Toughness

(c) Strength

(d) Presence of alkaline or lime content

(e) Presence of impurities

12. Smith’s test is performed on stones to find the presence of

(a) Earthly matter

(b) Iron

(c) Dissolved salt

(d) Cracks

(e) Foliation

13. Impact test determines the __________ of a stone

(a) Abrasion quality

(b) Toughness

(c) Mineral constituents

(d) Texture

(e) Fissures

14. A good building stone should have

(a) Strength

(b) Hardness and toughness

(c) Resistance to fire

(d) Good appearance and colour

(e) All the above

CHAPTER 3

Bricks

1. The main constituents of Brick earth are given below. Choose the wrong one.

(a) Alumina and magnesia

(b) Lime

(c) Mica

(d) Silica

(e) Iron Oxide

2. Which one of the following impurity is not desirable in the soil used for brick formation?

(a) Alkali

(b) Kankar

(c) Iron oxide

(d) (a) and (b) above

(e) (b) and (c) above

3. For good quality bricks, the percentage of alumina by weight should be

(a) 40 to 50

(b) 50 to 65

(c) 20 to 30

(d) 85 to 50

(e) 10 to 20

4. Sometimes additional soil such as sandy or calcareous clays are added in suitable proportion to the natural soil to improve the quality. This process is known as

(a) Mixing

(b) Blending

(c) Tempering

(d) Weathering

(e) Digging

5. The process of kneading the soil under feet of men or cattle after adding necessary quantity of water in order to make the soil stiff and homogeneous is called

(a) Blending

(b) Weathering

(c) Spreading

(d) Tempering

(e) None of the above

6. Bricks attain red colour due to the presence of

(a) Iron oxide

(b) Lime

(c) Silica

(d) Magnesia

(e) Alumina

7. Nominal size of modular bricks is

(a) 18 cm × 8 cm × 8 cm

(b) 18 cm × 9 cm × 4.5 cm

(c) 19 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm

(d) 18 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm

(e) 20 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm

8. Heating the brick earth beyond 1300°C the material gets

(a) Vitrified

(b) Expanded

(c) Red hot

(d) Boiled

(e) Liquified

9. As per Indian Standard bricks are classified based on __________ strength.

(a) Tensile strength

(b) Compressive strength

(c) Shear strength

(d) (a) and (c)

(e) None of the above

10. Bricks containing a relatively large proportion of soluble salts are liable to become discoloured by the formation of a whitish deposit, known as

(a) Chuffs

(b) Bloating

(c) Efflorescence

(d) Lamination

(e) Nodules

11. Brick moulded with a rounded angle is termed

(a) Circular brick

(b) Plinth brick

(c) Squint brick

(d) Bull-nose brick

(e) Copying brick

12. Refractory bricks are prepared from __________ clay in the same manner as the ordinary bricks.

(a) Fire

(b) Soft

(c) Stiff

(d) Silty

(e) Sandy

CHAPTER 4

Tiles and Ceramic Materials

1. Terracotta is a hard brownish unglazed vitrified __________ material used for ornamental purposes.

(a) Clayey sand

(b) Refractory clay

(c) Ceramic

(d) Ground stone

(e) Soft clay

2. Important characteristics of good tile are

(a) Should be uniformly burnt with uniform colour

(b) Should have even and compact surface

(c) Should not have cracks, flows or bends

(d) Should be hard and durable

(e) All the above

3. Common clay tiles are classified as clay Roof tiles, Clay Floor Tiles, Clay ceiling Tiles and

(a) Mangalore clay tiles

(b) Clay terracing tiles

(c) Clay pot tiles

(d) Country tiles

(e) Clay flat tiles

4. Manufacturing of common clay tiles involve the following operations.

(a) Preparation of clay

(b) Moulding of tiles

(c) Drying of tiles

(d) Burning of tiles

(e) All the above

5. Burning of tiles in kilns are done by firing initially with 800°C, slackened for six hours and increased to __________ for about 3 hours.

(a) 1000°C

(b) 1200°C

(c) 1300°C

(d) 1400°C

(e) 1600°C

6. The clay selected for terra-cotta for tiles should contain __________ of iron oxide and about 1% of lime.

(a) 5 to 8%

(b) 6 to 10%

(c) 3 to 5%

(d) 9 to 12%

(e) 7 to 15%

7. For terra-cotta tile making the temperature of the kiln is raised to about

(a) 1500°C

(b) 1400°C

(c) 1300°C

(d) 1200°C

(e) 1100°C

CHAPTER 5

Lime

1. Limestone is obtained by burning one of the naturally available materials such as

(a) Limestones found in limestone hills

(b) Limestone builders found in the bed of old rivers

(c) Kankar found below ground

(d) Shells of sea animals

(e) One of the above

2. In order to get the best quality lime it is recommended to have __________ of clay.

(a) 8 to 30%

(b) 5 to 15%

(c) 25 to 40%

(d) 40 to 60%

(e) 35 to 80%

3. Hydraulicity is returned to lime when the magnesium carbonate content is about __________.

(a) 10%

(b) 20%

(c) 30%

(d) 40%

(e) 50%

4. It is undesirable to have thin material in limestone as it is harmful and liable to produce poor quality of lime. The material is

(a) Alumina

(b) Iron oxide

(c) Silica

(d) Magnesia

(e) Pyrites

5. Increase in clay content in lime makes the slaking difficult and increases the __________ properties.

(a) Hydraulic

(b) Chemical

(c) Physical

(d) Fatigue

(e) Shrinking

6. For manufacturing of fat lime, the percentage of impurities in limestone should not exceed

(a) 30%

(b) 25%

(c) 20%

(d) 10%

(e) 5%

7. In this kiln for making lime, the fuel is not allowed to come in contact with limestone. Name the kiln.

(a) Intermittent – flare kiln

(b) Intermittent – flame kiln

(c) Clamp burning

(d) Continuous kiln

(e) None of the above

8. The process of adding water to lime to convert it to hydrated lime is known as

(a) Calcination

(b) Watering

(c) Quenching

(d) Slaking

(e) Hydration

9. Physical tests on limestone are based on the following properties

(a) Texture

(b) Appearance

(c) Colour

(d) Odour

(e) All the above

10. Limestone loses its weight due to heating because of removal of

(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Sulphur dioxide

(c) Oxygen

(d) Hydration

(e) None of the above

11. In acid test, abundant efflorescence indicates high percentage of

(a) Sodium carbonate

(b) Calcium carbonate

(c) Potassium carbonate

(d) Sodium sulphate

(e) Calcium sulphate

12. Use of pozzolanic materials provide the properties given below. Choose the correct one

(a) Improves workability

(b) Lower the heat of hydration

(c) Reduces shrinkage

(d) Improves hydraulic properties

(e) All the above

CHAPTER 6

Cement

1. The main constituent which contributes for strength of cement is

(a) Silica

(b) Alumina

(c) Lime

(d) Iron Oxide

(e) Magnesium oxide

2. When water is added to cement and mixed, it forms a paste which gradually becomes hard. The time taken for the entire process is called

(a) Setting time

(b) Elapsed time

(c) Calculated time

(d) Consolidated time

(e) Strength time

3. Cement which has less expansive qualities when mixed with water is termed

(a) Fitness

(b) Solidification

(c) Soundness

(d) Calcinated

(e) Hydrated

4. Unsoundness of cement may be controlled by

(a) Limiting the MgO content to less than 0.5%

(b) Fine grinding

(c) Allowing the cement for aeration for several days and

(d) Through mixing

(e) All the above

5. The reaction of silicates and aluminates of cement with water forms a binding medium which solidifies into a hardened mass which is termed as

(a) Hydration

(b) Water tightening

(c) Solidification

(d) Liberation

(e) Contraction

6. An inactive part of cement is called the insoluble residue. The maximum allowable value is

(a) 0.50%

(b) 0.65%

(c) 0.70%

(d) 0.80%

(e) 0.85%

7. Clinker from the kiln is cooled and then ground in a ball mill with the addition of __________ of gypsum.

(a) 1 to 2%

(b) 2 to 3%

(c) 3 to 4%

(d) > 3%

(e) > 5%

8. Out of the constituents of cement like Tri-calcium silicate, Di-Calcium silicate, Tri-calcium aluminate, the first to set and harden is

(a) Tri-calcium silicate

(b) Di-calcium silicate

(c) Tri-calcium aluminate

(d) (a) and (b) above

(e) All set simultaneously

9. Portland slag cement is made by inter-grinding Portland Cement clinker and

(a) Dicalcium silicate

(b) Granulated blast furnace waste

(c) 4% of Gypsum

(d) Magnesium oxide

(e) Free lime

10. Hydrophobic Portland cement is produced by inter-grinding Portland cement with 0.1 to 0.4%

(a) Dilute Hydrochloric acid

(b) Hydrogen per oxide

(c) Stearic acid

(d) Sulphur-di-oxide

(e) Calcium chloride

11. In quick setting cement the compared added is

(a) Aluminium Sulphate

(b) Gypsum

(c) Aluminium silicate

(d) Calcium sulphate

(e) Magnesium sulphate

12. Fineness of cement is represented by specific surface which is expressed as total surface area in

(a) Square cm

(b) Square cm/gm

(c) Cubic cm/gm

(d) Gm/square cm

(e) Gm/cm

13. Le Chatelier’s apparatus is used to find the __________ of cement.

(a) Initial setting time

(b) Final setting time

(c) Soundness

(d) Strength

(e) Consistency

14. Strength of cement is found from conducting test on.

(a) Cement mortar cube of 1:3 mix

(b) Cement mortar cylinder of 1:3 mix

(c) Cement mortar cube of 1:4 mix

(d) Cement concrete cube of 1:2:4

(e) Cement concrete of cylinder 1:1½:2

15. Brazilian test is conducted to find the __________ strength

(a) Compress

(b) Bending

(c) Shear

(d) Tensile

(e) Bond

16. Ratio of percentage of alumina to that of iron oxide in Ordinary Portland Cement is

(a) > 0.70

(b) = 0.80

(c) ≮ 0.66

(d) ≯ 0.66

(e) Between 0.80 and 0.90

17. Loss on ignition in cement should

(a) be equal to 0.30%

(b) ≯ 4%

(c) < 2%

(d) Between 2 to 2.5%

(e) None of the above

CHAPTER 7

Mortrar

1. Coarse sand is one which is passing through a screen with clear openings of

(a) 3.18 mm

(b) 2.18 mm

(c) 1.38 mm

(d) 8.31 mm

(e) 1.81 mm

2. The fineness modulus of sand should be between

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 4 and 5

(e) 5 and 7

3. Water is taken as free from organic matter if the pH value lies between

(a) 8 and 10

(b) 9 and 10

(c) 6 and 8

(d) 4 and 6

(e) 3 and 5

4. Presence of salts in water should __________.

(a) be 8000 ppm

(b) not be greater than 15000 ppm

(c) not be greater than 25000 ppm

(d) not be greater than 10000 ppm

(e) be between 34000 to 26000 ppm

5. Cement performs the following functions when used in cement mortar. Choose the correct one

(a) Primarily fills the voids formed by fine aggregates

(b) Binds the fine aggregates into a solid mass with time when added with water to the mix

(c) Impacts strengths after setting

(d) Only (b) and (c)

(e) (a), (b) and (c)

6. Surkhi is another form of fine aggregate which is usually prepared by powdering

(a) Limestones

(b) Unburnt slag

(c) Unburnt bricks

(d) Furnace waste

(e) Sandstone

7. For external walls without protection the grade of cement mortar to be used is

(a) MM 2

(b) > MM 3

(c) MM7.5

(d) MM 5 to MM 7

(e) < MM 2

8. Fire-resistant mortar is obtained by adding aluminuous cement to the finely ground powder of

(a) Half-burnt bricks

(b) Slag

(c) Fly-ash

(d) Fire-bricks

(e) Table-moulded bricks

9. Packing mortar is a special type of mortar possessing the property of

(a) High homogeneity and water resistance

(b) Pre-determined setting time

(c) Ability to form solid and water proof plugs

(d) (b) and (c) only

(e) (a), (b) and (c)

10. For sound-absorbing mortar the type of crushed aggregate used is

(a) Uniformly graded gravel

(b) Light-weight porous material

(c) Well-graded strong aggregate

(d) Poorly-graded sandstone

(e) River-pebbles

11. X-ray shielding mortar is obtained from cement, admixtures and

(a) Light-weight porous pumice

(b) Uniformly graded sand

(c) Coarse sand

(d) Crushed heavy rocks

(e) Crushed cinders

12. The cement mortar used for pointing works is

(a) 1.5 to 1.6

(b) 1.3 to 1.4

(c) 1:6

(d) 1:3

(e) 1:1 to 1:2

CHAPTER 8

Concrete

1. Strength of cement concrete depends on

(a) Quality of water

(b) Quality of aggregate

(c) Quantity of aggregate

(d) Quality of cement

(e) Water-cement ratio

2. Super plasticizers permit reduction of water up to __________ without reduction in workability.

(a) 10%

(b) 20%

(c) 30%

(d) 40%

(e) 50%

3. The commonly used retarder is

(a) Calcium sulphate

(b) Potassium sulphate

(c) Barium sulphate

(d) Sulpur chloride

(e) Calcium chloride

4. Accelerators are used in situations as given below. Choose the correct one

(a) Early removal of formwork

(b) Reducing the period of curing

(c) Accelerating the setting time in cold weather

(d) Energy repair work

(e) All the above

5. Different air entraining agents behave differently depending on the elasticity of the film of the bubble formed and the extent to which the __________ is reduced.

(a) Compressive force

(b) Surface Tension

(c) Shear force

(d) Torsion

(e) Bond stress

6. Surface loss of water from concrete depends upon

(a) Air temperature

(b) Relative Humidity

(c) Wind velocity

(d) Fresh concrete temperature

(e) All the above

7. Curing of concrete is done by

(a) Spraying method

(b) Bonding method

(c) Covering with moist cloth

(d) Covering with moist sand

(e) Any of the above methods

8. The minimum water cement ratio required for a workable concrete is

(a) 0.4

(b) 0.5

(c) 0.6

(d) 0.7

(e) 0.8

9. Cement concrete grading is based on the characteristic compressive strength of 150 mm cube at __________ days.

(a) 7

(b) 15

(c) 21

(d) 28

(e) 30

10. M 45 Grade Designation is given to __________ concrete.

(a) Ordinary

(b) Low strength

(c) Standard

(d) Medium Strength

(e) High Strength

11. Separation of water on fresh concrete is called

(a) Segregation

(b) Honeycombing

(c) Hydration

(d) Bleeding

(e) Dilution

12. Bulking of sand, occurs due to

(a) Viscosity

(b) Capillary action

(c) Surface tension

(d) Moisture in voids

(e) Air in voids

13. Under-compaction makes the concrete

(a) Impermeable

(b) Segregated

(c) Lean

(d) Thin

(e) Tough

14. Exterior application of rendering made on concrete structure is denoted as

(a) Smooth finish

(b) Applied finish

(c) Rough finish

(d) Clean finish

(e) None of the above

15. Slump test is the most commonly used method of measuring __________ of concrete

(a) Consistency

(b) Compactness

(c) Toughness

(d) Rigidity

(e) Hardness

16. Normally strength of cylindrical specimens tested under compression is taken as __________ times the compressive strength of cubical specimens.

(a) 0.95

(b) 0.90

(c) 0.85

(d) 0.80

(e) 0.75

17. Schmidt’s Rebound Hammer is a commonly adopted non-destructive equipment for measuring the

(a) Surface cracks

(b) Cracks at the bottom of the member

(c) Adequacy of reinforcement

(d) Surface hardness

(e) Mix proportion

18. Gamma-rays transmission method is particularly used to measure the __________ of concrete slabs of known density.

(a) Formation of cracks

(b) Thickness

(c) Compactness

(d) Rigidity

(e) Flexibility

CHAPTER 9

Precast Concrete Units

1. For maximum flexibility and convenience, the value of the basic module is

(a) 20 mm

(b) 150 mm

(c) 100 mm

(d) 90 mm

(e) 80 mm

2. Normal Length of precast slabs or other precast structural flooring units shall be in multiples of __________ M, where M is module

(a) 5 M

(b) 6 M

(c) 4 M

(d) 3 M

(e) 2 M

3. Normal width of precast beams shall be in multiples of

(a) M

(b) M/2

(c) M/4

(d) 2 M

(e) 1.5 M

4. Crucial factors which are to be considered for effective production and supply of precast concrete components are:

(a) Storage facilities

(b) Suitable transport facilities

(c) Erection equipment

(d) Availability of raw material

(e) All the above

5. Prefabricated RCC lintels are preferred for small spans up to __________

(a) 1 m

(b) 2 m

(c) 3 m

(d) 2.5 m

(e) 3.5 m

CHAPTER 10

Timber and Industrial Timber Products

1. Which one of the following is not an endogeneous tree?

(a) Bamboo

(b) Teak

(c) Palm

(d) Cane

(e) Coconut

2. Which one of the following is not an exogeneous tree?

(a) Teak

(b) Babul

(c) Sal

(d) Palm

(e) All of the above

3. Qualities of a softwood are the following. Choose the correct one.

(a) Light in weight and colour

(b) Has straight fibres and resinous

(c) Has distinct annular rings

(d) Weak and can split easily

(e) All the above

4. Qualities of a hardwood are the following. Choose the correct one

(a) Heavy in weight and dark in colour

(b) Close-grained and non-resinous

(c) No distinct annular rings

(d) Strong and durable

(e) All the above

5. Age of a tree may be estimated from

(a) Height of the tree

(b) Diameter of the bark

(c) Number of heart wood rings

(d) Cambrian layers

(e) Number of rings on the bark section

6. The central portion of a tree is called

(a) Cambrian layer

(b) Pith

(c) Sapwood

(d) Heart wood

(e) Inner Bark

7. In a tree the layer between the inner bark and sapwood is called

(a) Pith

(b) Cambium layer

(c) Heart wood

(d) Medullary rays

(e) Outer bark

8. Following are the type of woods which can be used for permanent structures. Choose the wrong one

(a) Hardwood like teak

(b) Softwood like deodar

(c) Hardwood like seal

(d) Softwood other than deodar

(e) (a) and (c)

9. When the diameter of the knot is __________ it is called small knot.

(a) < 6 mm diameter

(b) 6 to 20 mm diameter

(c) > 20 mm diameter

(d) > 40 mm diameter

(e) None of the above

10. The shakes which split or crack with more width at the centre and diminishing towards the circumference is called

(a) Heart shakes

(b) Star shakes

(c) Cup shakes

(d) Radial shakes

(e) Ring shakes

11. Sawing of a log along the diameter is called

(a) Half Sawing

(b) Quarter Sawing

(c) Ordinary Sawing

(d) Tangential Sawing

(e) Rift Sawing

12. Seasoning of timber is done to

(a) Heat the timber

(b) Make it water proof

(c) Make it free from organic matter

(d) Expel the moisture from timber

(e) Increase the strength

13. Superior quality of timber is obtained by

(a) Air seasoning

(b) Water seasoning

(c) Kiln seasoning

(d) Chemical seasoning

(e) Electrical seasoning

14. By this preservative treatment the timber is preserved against rot and attack by white ant.

(a) Tarring

(b) Charring

(c) Soaking

(d) Creosoting

(e) Hot and Cold

15. In plywood manufacturing, the veneers are placed so that the grains of adjacent veneers

(a) Run parallel

(b) Run at right angles

(c) Run at 60°

(d) Run at 45°

(e) Run at 30°

16. As per (CPWD) specification hardwood is said to be medium type when the density is in the range of

(a) 200 to 400 kg/m3

(b) 480 to 800 kg/m3

(c) 700 to 800 kg/m3

(d) 800 to 1200 kg/m3

(e) 1200 to 1400 kg/m3

CHAPTER 11

Metals and Alloys

1. Pig iron is extracted from one or all of the following iron ores.

(a) Magnetite

(b) Haematite

(c) Limonite

(d) Siderite

(e) All the above

2. Percentage of iron content is least in the iron ore

(a) Haematite

(b) Limonite

(c) Magnetite

(d) Pyrite

(e) Siderite

3. Cast iron is an alloy of iron and carbon with carbon more than __________.

(a) 2%

(b) 3%

(c) 4%

(d) 5%

(e) 6%

4. Hard steel contains percentage of carbon as

(a) < 0.25%

(b) up to 0.25%

(c) 0.25 to 0.70

(d) 0.70 to 1.00%

(e) 0.70 to 1.50%

5. Addition of __________ provides high electrical resistance and magnetic permeability used in electrical machinery.

(a) Manganese

(b) Tungsten

(c) Nickel

(d) Chromium

(e) Silicon

6. Aluminium is an abundantly available through the ore called.

(a) Bauxite

(b) Galenite

(c) Zincite

(d) Dolomite

(e) Tinstone

7. Magnesium occurs in the following mineral

(a) Magnesite

(b) Dolomite

(c) Kieserite

(d) Carnalite

(e) All the above

8. An increase in percentage of tin increases the __________ strength of bronze.

(a) Compressive

(b) Shear

(c) Bond

(d) Tensile

(e) All the above

9. The mechanical properties of brass and corrosion resistance of the brasses are further improved by addition of __________.

(a) Ferrous metals

(b) Non-ferrous metals

(c) Aluminium alloys

(d) Magnesium alloys

(e) Nickel alloys

10. Principal elements which are alloyed with pure aluminium to improve its tensile strength and hardness are

(a) Copper and silicon

(b) Manganese and zinc

(c) Magnesium and nickel

(d) None of the above

(e) All of (a), (b) and (c)

CHAPTER 12

Surface Finishing Materials

1. Surface finishing materials are

(a) Paints and Varnishes

(b) Distempers and white washing

(c) Distempers and colour washing

(d) Paints and distempers

(e) All the above

2. The chief ingredient of a paint is

(a) Inert filler

(b) Vehicle

(c) Base

(d) Pigment

(e) Thinner

3. A cheap pigment added to a paint to reduce its cost is

(a) Inert filler

(b) Base

(c) Thinner

(d) Pigment

(e) Vehicle

4. Addition of this material increases the workability of the paint.

(a) Base

(b) Thinner

(c) Drier

(d) Vehicle

(e) Inert filler

5. This type of pain is applied on the surfaces which are exposed to acidic gases and steam

(a) Bituminous paint

(b) Cellulose paint

(c) Asbestos paint

(d) Plastic paint

(e) Luminous paint

6. The resinous substances are

(a) Amber

(b) Common resin

(c) Copal

(d) Lac

(e) All the above

7. French Polish is prepared by dissolving black or light brown shellac in one litre of methylated spirit without heat.

(a) 0.10 kg

(b) 0.12 kg

(c) 0.15 kg

(d) 0.20 kg

(e) 0.25 kg

8. Distemper comprises of the following material

(a) a base

(b) a binder

(c) a thinner

(d) a pigment

(e) All the above

9. Casein is extracted from __________ and acts as a binder.

(a) Resins

(b) Slaked Lime

(c) Milk curds

(d) Glue

(e) Plaster

10. Linseed oiling consists of a mixture obtained by heating 3 parts of double boiled linseed oil and 1 part of bees wax to which 1 part of __________ is added by weight.

(a) Resins

(b) Plaster of Pairs

(c) Varnish

(d) Turpentine

(e) Vinegar

CHAPTER 13

Other Building Materials

1. The original source of asbestos was the fibrous mineral

(a) Actinolite

(b) Chrysolite

(c) Amonite

(d) Crocidolite

(e) None of the above

2. Asbestos boards can withstand temperatures up to

(a) 200°C

(b) 250°C

(c) 300°C

(d) 540°C

(e) 600°C

3. Asbestos sheets are used for the following purposes

(a) Wall-lining

(b) Wall-panelling

(c) False ceiling

(d) Partitions side-cladding

(e) All the above

4. Among the constituents of fly-ash given below which one has the lowest percentage.

(a) Aluminium oxide

(b) Silicon dioxide

(c) Unburnt fuel

(d) Calcium oxide

(e) Sulphur trioxide

5. In order to use fly-ash as pozzolana, the minimum specific surface should be

(a) 320 m2/kg

(b) 400 m2/kg

(c) 410 m2/kg

(d) 520 m2/kg

(e) 600 m2/kg

6. Bitumen is found in

(a) Gaseous form

(b) Liquid form

(c) Semi-solid form

(d) Solid form

(e) In all the above forms

7. When the viscosity of a bitumen is reduced by a volatile __________, the bitumen is called as cut back bitumen.

(a) Gas

(b) Mixture

(c) Dilutant

(d) Solid

(e) None of the above

8. Tar is the viscous liquid produced when natural organic materials such as coal, petroleum or wood, etc are __________

(a) Carbonised

(b) Stabilised

(c) Liquified

(d) Solidified

(e) Sulphodised

9. Glass is any substance or combination of substances which has solidified from the liquid state without

(a) Any reaction

(b) Forming semi-solid

(c) Crystallization

(d) Any physical change

(e) None of the above

10. The old broken glass of the same type as that one is intended to be manufactured is called

(a) Glasset

(b) Pyrex

(c) Flint

(d) Cullet

(e) Crown

11. Plastics which become soft when heated and become hard when cooked is called

(a) Thermoset plastics

(b) Thermo plastics

(c) Perspex

(d) PVC

(e) Bakelite

12. Geomembrances are thin materials with very low __________

(a) Conductivity

(b) Durability

(c) Flexibility

(d) Permeability

(e) Resistivity

CHAPTER 14

Planning of Buildings

1. Central Building Research Institute (CBRI) is a research body set up by the __________

(a) Ministry of Education

(b) Ministry of Industries

(c) National Building Organisation

(d) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research

(e) National Building Construction Corporation

2. Hindustan Housing Factory is a Government of India Organisation involved in the manufacture of

(a) Bricks

(b) Building Tiles

(c) Precast Components

(d) Industrial timbers

(e) Paints and Varnishes

3. Building are classified based on fire resistance offered as

(a) Type – 1

(b) Type – 2

(c) Type – 3

(d) Type – 4

(e) All the above

4. Defining the maximum benefit from the minimum dimensions of a room is called

(a) Aspect

(b) Privacy

(c) Prospect

(d) Roominess

(e) Elegance

5. Horizontal circulation in a building is provided by

(a) Passages

(b) Corridors

(c) Halls

(d) Lobbies

(e) All the above

6. The usable area of a building is called

(a) Covered area

(b) Plinth area

(c) Floor area

(d) Building area

(e) Carpet area

7. The portion of a structure immediately above the ground and between the surface of the floor and the surrounding ground and the road surface so as to provide adequate drainage of the site is called

(a) Superstructure

(b) Substructure

(c) Damp Proof course

(d) Plinth

(e) Basement

8. Factors affecting orientation of building are

(a) Solar radiation

(b) Clouds and rainfall

(c) Winds

(d) Surrounding site conditions

(e) All the above

9. Hot-humid zones are found in India

(a) In the interior

(b) Away from the coast

(c) Along the coast

(d) In the central part

(e) In the northern part

CHAPTER 15

Foundations

1. That part of a structure which is in direct contact with the ground and transmits the load of the structure to the ground is called

(a) Superstructure

(b) Plinth

(c) Foundation

(d) Basement

(e) Brickwork

2. Methods of exploration are

(a) Indirect methods

(b) Semi-direct methods

(c) Direct methods

(d) (b) and (c)

(e) All methods (a), (b) and (c)

3. Direct methods are boring and sampling methods which continuously provide

(a) Only representative samples

(b) Only undisturbed samples

(c) Only disturbed samples

(d) Representative or undisturbed samples

(e) None of the above

4. Black cotton soils are spread over

(a) Central India

(b) Parts of Tamil Nadu

(c) Parts of Karnataka

(d) Parts of Andhra Pradesh

(e) All the above

5. The object of soil investigation is to get information regarding

(a) Nature, thickness and variation of soil strata at a place

(b) Physical properties of the soil strata encountered

(c) Seasonal variation in ground water table and its effect on the soil strata

(d) (b) and (c) only

(e) All the above

6. The bearing capacity of a soil can not be increased by

(a) Chemical treatment

(b) Grouting

(c) Compacting

(d) Moistening the soil

(e) Drawing the moisture of the soil

7. The process of strengthening soil by providing high strength thin horizontal members is called

(a) Geotextile

(b) Geosynthetics

(c) Soil reinforcement

(d) Soil consolidation

(e) Chemical stabilization

8. Structures on rigid ground undergo

(a) Tilt

(b) Non-uniform settlement

(c) Differential settlement

(d) Uniform settlement

(e) Immediate settlement

9. Types of shallow foundations are

(a) Spread footings

(b) Combined footings

(c) Strip footings

(d) Mat foundation

(e) All the above

10. In case of pile if the load is supported by friction between the pile and the surround soil and also by resting the pile on a firm soil structure, such a pile is called as

(a) Friction pile

(b) End Bearing pile

(c) Friction and End Bearing pile

(d) Battered pile

(e) Sheet pile

11. In order to resist horizontal and inclined forces in water and earth retaining structures __________ piles are used

(a) Point-bearing

(b) Friction

(c) Uplift

(d) Batter

(e) Tension

12. In case of grillage foundations, the distance between the flanges of grillage beams should be equal to

(a) Half the flange width

(b) Flange width

(c) Twice the flange width

(d) Four times the flange width

(e) None of the above

13. Foundations on weaker soils are

(a) Grillage foundation

(b) Pile foundation

(c) Raft or mat foundation

(d) Any of the above

(e) None of the above

14. For heavy structures on sandy soils the type of foundation generally provided is

(a) Pier foundation

(b) Strap footing

(c) Raft foundation

(d) Combined footing

(e) None of the above

15. Bored cast-in-situ and bored compaction concrete piles with enlarged base is called

(a) Under reamed pile

(b) Bored pile

(c) Driven pile

(d) Caisson

(e) Well foundation

16. Excavation beyond depth of __________ is generally categorized as deep excavation.

(a) 1.0 m

(b) 1.5 m

(c) 2.0 m

(d) 2.5 m

(e) 3.0 m

17. Types of sheet piles commonly used are

(a) Flat web

(b) Arch web

(c) Trough web

(d) Z-piling

(e) Except (c)

18. Main causes of foundation settlement are

(a) Elastic compression of the foundation

(b) Inelastic compression of the underlying soil

(c) Ground water lowering

(d) (a) and (b)

(e) (a), (b) and (c)

CHAPTER 16

Masonry Construction

1. Brick laid with its breadth or width parallel to the face or direction of a wall is called

(a) Squint

(b) Quoin

(c) Header

(d) Stretcher

(e) Closer

2. A piece of thick straight wood ruler with a piece of string which is fixed in the wood at one end and a solid metal piece is called

(a) Tri square

(b) Bolster

(c) Lin and Pins

(d) Plumb bob

(e) None of the above

3. A bond produced by laying alternate stretchers and headers in each course is called

(a) English Bond

(b) Flemish Bond

(c) Stretcher Bond

(d) Header Bond

(e) None of the above

4. In stone masonry, a horizontal course of masonry continuously projecting from the face of the wall is called

(a) Bed surface

(b) Corbel

(c) String course

(d) Stretcher course

(e) Header course

5. A stonework wherein blocks of stones are either undressed or roughly dressed and have wider joints is called

(a) Ashlar masonry

(b) Random masonry

(c) Rubble masonry

(d) Chamfered masonry

(e) None of the above

6. Following are the qualities of Brick masonry. Choose the wrong one

(a) Construction cost is less

(b) More resistance to atmospheric effects

(c) Massive appearance

(d) High fire resistance

(e) No special lifting devices are needed

7. In the construction of Load bearing walls using hallow blocks, joint reinforcement is used for

(a) Crack control

(b) Settlement control

(c) Shear control

(d) All the above

(e) None of (a), (b) and (c)

8. In reinforced brick masonry walls iron bars or expanded metal mesh are provided at __________ course.

(a) Every course

(b) Alternate course

(c) Third or fourth courses

(d) First two courses only

(e) First three courses only

CHAPTER 17

Walls

1. Wall consisting of two structural leaves separated by an uniform continuous space is called

(a) Faced wall

(b) Solid wall

(c) Cavity wall

(d) Solid wall with piers

(e) Veneered wall

2. Some of the important load bearing walls are

(a) Panel wall

(b) Partition wall

(c) Curtain wall

(d) Free-standing wall

(e) All the above

3. Following are the free standing walls the wrong one.

(a) Parapet wall

(b) Compound wall

(c) Panel wall

(d) Shear wall

(e) Buttress wall

4. If both lateral and rotational restraints are offered by a support, then the wall is said to be

(a) Partially Tree

(b) Free

(c) Partially restrained

(d) Fully restrained

(e) Restrained

5. The ratio of effective height or effective length to the effective thickness of a masonry unit is called

(a) Flexible ratio

(b) Stiffness ratio

(c) Slenderness ratio

(d) Stability ratio

(e) Lengthwise ratio

6. Some of the factors which contribute for eccentricity on brick walls are

(a) Long floor edges

(b) Relative stiffness

(c) Flexibility and Geometry of support

(d) Unequal spans

(e) All the above

7. In general expansion joints have to be provided for every

(a) 5 m

(b) 7.5 m

(c) 10.0 m

(d) 12.5 m

(e) 15.0 m

8. Isolation joint is similar to joint

(a) Sliding

(b) Contraction

(c) Double

(d) Expansion

(e) Shear

9. Cracks are frequently found in brick masonry walls due to

(a) Introduction of new type of construction

(b) Moisture absorption

(c) Temperature variation

(d) Deflection and shrinkage of concrete slabs resting on wall

(e) All the above reasons

CHAPTER 18

Framed Structures

1. Structures which are formed by connecting a series of horizontal and vertical members in suitable positions is called

(a) Pannelled structures

(b) Framed structures

(c) Composite structures

(d) Rigid structures

(e) None of the above

2. Choose the best advantage of a timber framed structure from the following.

(a) Durability

(b) Beauty

(c) Shock absorbing

(d) Electrical insulation

(e) High strength

3. In order to resist wind and earthquake forces, steel framed structures need __________

(a) Welding

(b) Long length members

(c) Bracing

(d) High strength

(e) Bolting

4. Buildings with more than __________ stories are called as multi-storey buildings.

(a) 12

(b) 10

(c) 8

(d) 7

(e) 5

5. Separation of structure into two or more elements and join the entire structural elements such that it functions as a monolithic structure is called.

(a) Free structure

(b) Combined structure

(c) Articulated structure

(d) Framed structure

(e) Balanced structure

6. In fully prefabricated construction it is the practice to use __________ elements.

(a) Smaller

(b) Shorter

(c) Heavier

(d) Larger

(e) Longer

7. Multi-storey buildings may be built of standardised construction with column spaces based on some __________

(a) Specific spacing

(b) Modular grids

(c) Small grids

(d) Large unequal spanned grids

(e) Equally spanned grids

8. Based on dimensions multi-storey buildings are erected by means of __________ placed one or both sides of the frame.

(a) Hoists

(b) Pillar cranes

(c) Over head cranes

(d) Tower cranes

(e) All of the above

CHAPTER 19

Arches and Lintels

1. Mechanical arrangement of wedge-shaped blocks of stones or bricks mutually supporting each other and in turn supported at the ends by piers or abutments or walls is called

(a) Bridge structure

(b) Lintel

(c) Rib structure

(d) Arch

(e) Open-space structure

2. Stability of an arch is disturbed by

(a) Crushing of arch material

(b) Sliding of wedge-shaped blocks

(c) Rotation about an edge

(d) Differential settlement of supports

(e) Any one of the above

3. The inner curve of an arch is called

(a) Extrados

(b) Intrados

(c) Abutment

(d) Arch ring

(e) Springing line

4. Wedge-shaped blocks of stone or brick masonry of which an arch ring is made is called

(a) Soffit

(b) Haunch

(c) Voussoirs

(d) Skew backs

(e) Key stones

5. Two-centered arches are

(a) Blunt arch

(b) Gothic arch

(c) Acute arch

(d) All the above

(e) None of the above

6. Brick arches are made out of the following

(a) Gaughed arches

(b) Axed or rough cut arches

(c) Rough brick arches

(d) Brick flat arches

(e) All the above

7. Variety of bricks used for brick arches are

(a) Ordinary standard bricks

(b) Ordinary bricks cut to a wedge shape

(c) Special bricks of different sizes

(d) Soft bricks

(e) All the above

8. As a general rule the depth of lintel can be adopted as 1/12th of the span or __________ whichever is greater.

(a) 30 cm

(b) 25 cm

(c) 20 cm

(d) 15 cm

(e) 10 cm

9. Minimum depth of plinth beams __________ and should be provided to the full width of the wall.

(a) 10 to 15 cm

(b) 15 to 20 cm

(c) 20 to 25 cm

(d) 25 to 30 cm

(e) > 30 cm

10. Grade beams are provided in between __________ footings.

(a) Combined

(b) Continuous

(c) Strip

(d) Isolated

(e) Ring

CHAPTER 20

Doors and Windows

1. In order to keep the frame of door or window in position this member is used.

(a) Horn

(b) Holdfast

(c) Style

(d) Mullion

(e) Jamb

2. Doors are to be located so that there is

(a) Freedom of movement

(b) Maximum use of accommodation

(c) Privacy of the occupants

(d) (a) and (b)

(e) (a), (b) and (c)

3. A door comprising of a frame work of rails and styles and covered with plywood or hard board is called

(a) Sash door

(b) Ledge door

(c) Pannel door

(d) Flush door

(e) Framed and panelled door

4. A depression cut in the frame to receive the door is known as

(a) Recess

(b) Rebate

(c) Louver

(d) Tension

(e) Groove

5. A window provided on a flat roof of a room is known as

(a) Lantern window

(b) Skylight window

(c) Dormer window

(d) Gable window

(e) Louvered window

6. The window which projects outside the room of a building is called

(a) Dormer window

(b) Bay Window

(c) Clearstorey window

(d) Gable window

(e) Louvered window

7. The window which is provided on the sloping roofs is called

(a) Bay window

(b) Gable window

(c) Glazed window

(d) Dormer window

(e) Corner window

8. The window in which the shutters open like doors is called

(a) Casement window

(b) Gable window

(c) Dormer window

(d) Bay window

(e) Louvered window

9. Pivoted windows fixed near the top of the main roof is called

(a) Dormer window

(b) Gable window

(c) Bay window

(d) Casement window

(e) Clearstorey window

10. A narrow window of small height which is generally fixed at the top of door or window is called

(a) Ventilator

(b) Dormer window

(c) Sky light

(d) Lantern

(e) Auxiliary window

CHAPTER 21

Stairs and Elevators

1. The vertical member between treads is known as

(a) Flight

(b) Drop

(c) Rise

(d) Ascend

(e) Riser

2. It is an upper horizontal portion of a step used to keep the foot while ascending or descending.

(a) Tread

(b) Flight

(c) Riser

(d) Drop

(e) Ascend

3. It is a series of steps without any break such as a platform, landing, etc.

(a) Tread

(b) Flight

(c) Drop

(d) Ascend

(e) Riser

4. In order to make the ascend comfortable the stair-way should not have steps more than

(a) 20

(b) 18

(c) 15

(d) 12

(e) 10

5. In order to prevent undue exortion to the user the pitch or slope of a stair should not exceed

(a) 60°

(b) 50°

(c) 40°

(d) 30°

(e) 20°

6. A flat platform at the head of a series of steps is known as

(a) Stopper

(b) Rest space

(c) Relief

(d) Platform

(e) Landing

7. The posts set at the top and bottom of a stair supporting the hand rail, are called

(a) Baluster

(b) End posts

(c) Arm posts

(d) Pillars

(e) Newels

8. In this type of stairs the direction of flight is changed through 180° by introduction of landings and or window is called

(a) Quarter-turn stairs

(b) Straight stairs

(c) Dog-legged stairs

(d) Bifurcated staircase

(e) Geometric stairs

9. In this stair the bottom flight is wide which is divided into narrow flights from either side of the landing, is called

(a) Geometric stairs

(b) Bifurcated stairs

(c) Dog-legged stairs

(d) Straight stairs

(e) Half-turn stairs

10. Radiating or angular steps which give a change in directions to the stairs, are called

(a) Round steps

(b) Skew steps

(c) Radial steps

(d) Winders

(e) Circular steps

11. In case of stairs (Rise × Tread) should be between

(a) 200 and 250

(b) 250 and 300

(c) 300 and 400

(d) 400 and 500

(e) 500 and 600

12. For residential buildings, the common size of step is __________.

(a) 10 cm × 20 cm

(b) 15 cm × 30 cm

(c) 15 cm × 28 cm

(d) 12 cm × 24 cm

(e) 12 cm × 20 cm

13. Ramps are sloping surfaces which should be provided with a __________ surface.

(a) Flat

(b) Rough

(c) Smooth

(d) Non-slippery

(e) None of the above

14. Stairs which are moving stairs or ever-moving stairs is called

(a) Elevator

(b) Ramp

(c) Fast moving Elevator

(d) Hoist

(e) Escalator

CHAPTER 22

Temporary Supporting Structures

1. Formwork should have

(a) Adequate strength and rigidity

(b) Smooth inner surface

(c) Less leakage

(d) Easy removal

(e) All the above

2. Temporary structures are needed when the height of construction exceeds about

(a) 1.5 m

(b) 2.5 m

(c) 3.0 m

(d) 3.2 m

(e) 3.5 m

3. Vertical members of a scaffold which are either supported on the ground or embedded into the ground or rested on sand filled bags are called.

(a) Ledgers

(b) Standards

(c) Put logs

(d) Rakers

(e) Braces

4. This type of scaffolding is commonly used and particularly in the construction of brickwork, which is called

(a) Double scaffolding

(b) Mason’s scaffolding

(c) Single scaffolding

(d) Suspended scaffolding

(e) Trestle scaffolding

5. In this type of shoring inclined members are adopted to provide temporary support to the external walls from the ground. This type of shoring is called __________ shore

(a) Raking

(b) Flying

(c) Vertical

(d) Horizontal

(e) Dead

6. Method of supporting structures while providing new foundations or strengthening the foundation without affecting the stability of the existing structures.

(a) Under pinning

(b) Shoring

(c) Scaffolding

(d) Flying shores

(e) Raking shores

7. Methods of under pinning are

(a) Pit method

(b) Pile method

(c) Pier method

(d) Chemical method

(e) All the above

8. Pit method of under pinning is impracticable or uneconomical in the case of

(a) Water-logged areas

(b) Heavy loads are existing structure

(c) Loads to be transferred to a deeper depth

(d) All the above

(e) None of (a), (b) and (c)

CHAPTER 23

Ground and Upper Floors

1. This is a part of a floor which is required to impart strength and stability to support a floor covering and all other super imposed loads including live loads. This is called

(a) Plinth

(b) Levelling course

(c) Sub-floor

(d) Sub-base course

(e) None of the above

2. Functional requirements of a floor in general are

(a) Strengths and stability

(b) Heat and sound insulation

(c) Fire resistance sand durability

(d) Damp and moisture prevention

(e) All the above

3. Selection of basement floor depends on

(a) Availability of ventilation

(b) Drainage of water from the floor

(c) Adequate safety against fire

(d) Ground water level

(e) All the above

4. Special type of concrete flooring containing marble chips as aggregates is called

(a) Granolithic floor

(b) Terrazzo floor

(c) Mosaic floor

(d) Marble floor

(e) None of the above

5. Floors made from materials such as PVC, linoleum, rubbles, etc are called

(a) Plastic floor

(b) Resilient Floor

(c) Terrazzo Floor

(d) Mosaic Floor

(e) None of the above

6. In flat slab floor construction, if the reinforcement is provided between the columns and perpendicular to the columns is called __________.

(a) Four-way system of reinforcement

(b) Uniform system of reinforcement

(c) Two-way system of reinforcement

(d) Non-uniform system of reinforcement

(e) None of the above

7. Rubber floor is composed of __________ tuber with various filling compounds.

(a) Artificial

(b) Processed

(c) Synthetic

(d) Natural

(e) None of the above

8. The weight per metre length of structural hollow clay tiles should not exceed

(a) 200 M

(b) 160 M

(c) 150 M

(d) 140 M

(e) 120 M

CHAPTER 24

Structural Steel Works

1. For construction works, steel should be available in certain forms which are known as __________.

(a) Steel forms

(b) Commercial forms

(c) Steel section

(d) Moulded section

(e) Deformed section

2. Channel section has two equal flanges and a __________.

(a) Leg

(b) Web

(c) Base

(d) Angle

(e) None of the above

3. Steel members are fastened together by means of

(a) Rivets

(b) Bolts

(c) Welding

(d) (a) and (b) only

(e) (a), (b) and (c)

4. Rivets used in building construction are of soft steel with a tensile strength of the order of about

(a) 6000 kg/cm2

(b) 5000 kg/cm2

(c) 4000 kg/cm2

(d) 3000 kg/cm2

(e) 2000 kg/cm2

5. In order to make use of steel structures the standard sections are combined, such a combined section is called __________.

(a) Made-up section

(b) Arranged section

(c) Built-up section

(d) Formed-section

(e) None of the above

6. Steel roof trusses are designed in such a way that the members are either in __________.

(a) Tension or shear

(b) Compression or tension

(c) Compression or bond

(d) Bond or tension

(e) Compression or shear

7. Most suitable section for principal rafter is __________.

(a) I-section

(b) Channel section

(c) Angle section

(d) Tee-section

(e) None of the above

8. Steel trusses for spans more than 15 m are give below. Identify the wrong one.

(a) North-light vertical face truss

(b) Bow-string truss

(c) Arch truss

(d) North-light inclined face truss

(e) King-post truss

9. Types of steel lacings are given below. Identify the wrong one

(a) Single lacing

(b) Batten lacing

(c) X-type lacing

(d) Double lacing

(e) Z-type lacing

CHAPTER 25

Roof and Roof Coverings

1. The slope of a roof which may be expressed as degrees or inclination to the horizontal or the rise to the span is called

(a) Hip

(b) Ridge

(c) Eaves

(d) Pitch

(e) Gable

2. The lowest course of the roof is __________

(a) Hip

(b) Ridge

(c) Valley

(d) Eaves

(e) Gable

3. The apex line of a sloping roof is called __________

(a) Ridge

(b) Valley

(c) Hip

(d) Gable

(e) Eaves

4. This is a roof which has two rafters with a central ridge piece at the top. The rafters are fixed to the wall plates. Name the type of roof

(a) North-light roof

(b) Lean to roof

(c) Couple roof

(d) Couple close roof

(e) Collar tie roof

5. A type of roof used in factories is called

(a) Shed roof

(b) North light roof

(c) South light roof

(d) Saw tooth roof

(e) Either of (b) and (d)

6. Couple-close roofs are preferred for spans up to

(a) 3.0 m

(b) 3.5 m

(c) < 4.0 m

(d) 4.5 m

(e) > 5 m

7. A king-post truss is used for spans

(a) 3 to 5 m

(b) 6 to 9 m

(c) 10 to 15 m

(d) 15 to 18 m

(e) > 18 m

8. Water proofing of flat roof is done by the methods given below. Identify the wrong one

(a) Cement mortar finishing

(b) Bedding concrete and finishing

(c) Mastic asphalt finish

(d) Use of water-proof compounds

(e) Rough finishing

9. A ring constructed on the perimeter of a dome is to resist __________

(a) Shear

(b) Thrust

(c) Tension

(d) Bond

(e) Torque

10. This type of shell is developed by moving a straight line so that its ends lie on two fixed vertical curves.

(a) Cylindrical shell

(b) Spherical shell

(c) Rectangular shell

(d) Ruled surface shell

(e) Barrel vault

CHAPTER 26

Building Finishes

1. Building finishes contribute

(a) For the protection of exposed surface

(b) Provides a pleasing look

(c) Adds to the aesthetic view

(d) (a) and (b)

(e) (a), (b) and (c)

2. The method of covering rough and un-even surfaces of the various components of a building with a material is called

(a) Pointing

(b) Painting

(c) Colour washing

(d) Plastering

(e) Varnishing

3. For suitable application of plaster the background should be

(a) Solid

(b) Lathing

(c) Boards

(d) Slabs

(e) All the above

4. The surface to which the first coat of plaster is applied is called

(a) Base surface

(b) Preliminary surface

(c) Ground surface

(d) First surface

(e) Background surface

5. The development of one or more load swellings on the finished plastered surfaces, in called

(a) Crazing

(b) Blistering

(c) Swelling

(d) Boiling

(e) Foaming

6. The roughening of solid backgrounds to provide suitable key for plastering is

(a) Backing

(b) Grounding

(c) Hacking

(d) Facing

(e) Preparing

7. The process of working of the float for finishing coat is called

(a) Blistering

(b) Knetting

(c) Peeling

(d) Floating

(e) Dubbing out

8. Finishing of mortar joints to have a good appearance is called

(a) Pointing

(b) Pressing

(c) Roughening

(d) Gap rendering

(e) Refined plastering

9. In this type of pointing a V-shaped projection is made.

(a) Vee-Pointing

(b) Weathered pointing

(c) Tuck pointing

(d) Struck pointing

(e) Beaded pointing

10. In wood and metal works, in order to give a hard and opaque covering, a basic coat is made which is called

(a) Primary coating

(b) Basic coating

(c) Surface coating

(d) Weathering coating

(e) Resisting coating

CHAPTER 27

Essential Services in Buildings

1. Plumbing services comprises of

(a) System of Piping

(b) Fixtures

(c) Providing water supply

(d) Drainage arrangement

(e) All the above

2. Pipe branching out of the water main which is used for feeding water from the main pipe to the building is called

(a) Delivery pipe

(b) Subsidiary pipe

(c) Service pipe

(d) Minor pipe

(e) Branch pipe

3. Back flow of used or polluted water from a plumbing fixture or vessel into a water supply pipe due to negative pressure is called

(a) Reverse flow

(b) Back-Siphonage

(c) Reverse-Siphonage

(d) Negative flow

(e) Controlled flow

4. The used water from bathrooms, kitchen, wash basins, sinks, etc is called

(a) Sullage

(b) Sewage

(c) Waste water

(d) Rubbish water

(e) Polluted water

5. The capacity of an overhead tank in residences is

(a) 100 to 250 litres

(b) 200 to 300 litres

(c) 300 to 350 litres

(d) 300 to 500 litres

(e) > 1000 litres

6. The requirement of water per head per day, as per Indian Standards is

(a) 100 litres

(b) 120 litres

(c) 135 litres

(d) 150 litres

(e) 180 litres

7. Tap which operates as soon as the hand is placed below the tap and closes automatically as soon as the hand is removed is called

(a) Magnetic tap

(b) Self closing tap

(c) Pillar tap

(d) Bib tap

(e) Stop Tab

8. This trap is intended to receive sullage water from baths, sinks and wash basins. Identify the trap

(a) Flow trap

(b) Gully trap

(c) Intercepting trap

(d) S-trap

(e) P-trap

9. Disposal of sludge can be done by adopting any one of the method. Identify the correct method.

(a) Dumping into waste bodies

(b) Drying in beds

(c) Lagooning

(d) Shallow Burrial

(e) All the above

10. A cover pit through which the effluent is allowed to be soaked or absorbed into the surrounding soil is called

(a) Sludge pit

(b) Waste pit

(c) Soak pit

(d) Septic pit

(e) Sullage pit

11. A pool whose top portion acts as an absorption field and the bottom as a septic tank is known as

(a) Waste pool

(b) Soak pool

(c) Drain pool

(d) Cess pool

(e) Absorption pool

12. Wiring of buildings are performed by

(a) Sheathed wiring by surface fixing

(b) Conduit installation as walls and ceilings

(c) Concealed conduct wiring

(d) (a) and (b) only

(e) (a), (b) and (c)

CHAPTER 28

Special Services in Buildings

1. The branch of science dealing with the study of mixture of dry air and water vapour and the study of the behavior of moist air is called

(a) Atmospherics

(b) Chrometrics

(c) Psychrometrics

(d) Barometrics

(e) None of the above

2. Air conditioning involves control of

(a) Surrounding temperature

(b) Humidity

(c) Air circulation

(d) (a) and (b) only

(e) (a), (b) and (c)

3. Air conditioning classified under Functional Point of view is

(a) Comfort-air-conditioning

(b) Industrial air-conditioning

(c) Summer air-conditioning

(d) Winter air-conditioning

(e) (a) and (b) only

4. Comfort air-conditioning is achieved by

(a) Temperature control

(b) Air motion control

(c) Humidity control

(d) (a) and (b) only

(e) (a), (b) and (c)

5. System of air condition is

(a) Central system

(b) Self contained system

(c) Semi-contained system

(d) Combined system

(e) All the above

6. The heat of air-conditioning system is

(a) Cooling

(b) Humidification

(c) Air circulation

(d) Dehumidification

(e) (a) and (c) only

7. Main purpose of thermal insulation is

(a) To conserve a constant heat or temperature

(b) To prevent condensation

(c) To reduce the risk of water freezing in case of pipes

(d) To reduce the heat loss in case of hot water system

(e) To provide comfortable living and working

8. Points of low sound intensity causing unsatisfactory heating are called

(a) Echoes

(b) Dead spots

(c) Fringes

(d) Foci

(e) All the above

9. The highest audible sound has a frequency of

(a) 5000 cps

(b) 7500 cps

(c) 15000 cps

(d) 20000 cps

(e) 50000 cps

10. Repeated reflection of sound is called

(a) Echoes

(b) Reverberation

(c) Repeated noise

(d) Acoustical reflection

(e) None of the above

CHAPTER 29

Protection of Buildings

1. White ants (Termites) are very fast in eating wood and other __________ materials as food.

(a) Plastic

(b) Asbestos

(c) Cellulose

(d) (b) and (c) only

(e) (a), (b) and (c)

2. Termites can not enter through

(a) Hardwood

(b) Heavy cardboard

(c) Mud mortar

(d) Dense concrete

(e) None of the above

3. The emulsifiable chemical recommended by code of soil treatment against termites is

(a) Chloropyrifos concentrate

(b) Heptachlor concentrate

(c) Chloride concentrate

(d) (b) and (c) only

(e) Any of (a), (b) and (c),

4. In order to prevent the termites entry through walls, impenetratable physical structural barriers may be provided continuously at __________ level.

(a) Foundations

(b) Top of base concrete

(c) 0.5 m above bottom of foundation

(d) Plinth level

(e) Sill level

5. Natural causes for dampness is

(a) Penetration of rain

(b) Rise of moisture from ground and moisture condensation

(c) Drainage conditions of the site

(d) Orientation of the site

(e) All the above

6. Fire load is defined as the ratio of the weight of all combustible materials to the floor area. Fire load is classified as medium when the limit is

(a) 1.15 × 106 kJ/m2

(b) 1.15 × 106 to 2.30 × 106 kJ/m2

(c) 2.30 × 106 to 4.6 × 106 kJ/m2

(d) 5 × 106 to 7.5 × 106 kJ/m2

(e) > 7.5 × 106 kJ/m2

7. Depending on the population and importance of the region, one hydrant for an area of ________ is provided

(a) 1000 to 2000 m2

(b) 2000 to 3000 m2

(c) 3000 to 4000 m2

(d) 4000 to 10000 m2

(e) > 10000 m2

8. The lightning protection system consists of an unbroken chain of conductors from the roof of a building to the

(a) Top window level

(b) Sill level

(c) Plinth level

(d) Ground

(e) None of the above

9. Earthquakes are classified as

(a) Tectonic earthquakes

(b) Volcanic earthquakes

(c) Reservoir-associated earthquakes

(d) (a) and (b) only

(e) (a), (b) and (c)

10. Richter’s magnitude scale is in __________ scale.

(a) Arithmetic scale

(b) Semi-logarithmic scale

(c) Logarithmic scale

(d) (b) and (c) only

(e) All the above

11. The zone map of India sub-divides India into

(a) Two zones

(b) Three zones

(c) Four zones

(d) Five zones

(e) Regional zones

12. Intensity of earthquake is said to be moderate when the acceleration (cm/s/s) is

(a) Less than 1

(b) Over 1

(c) Over 2.5

(d) Over 5.0

(e) Over 10.0

CHAPTER 30

Preventive Measures and Maintenance of Buildings

1. Maintenance of drainage system is

(a) Fittings inside the building

(b) Waste and soil pipes

(c) Gulleys and chambers

(d) Roof-drainage system

(e) All the above

2. Maintenance of plastered brick work involves in

(a) Removal of efflorescence

(b) Repairing of cracks

(c) Repointing old brick points

(d) Repainting brick work

(e) (a), (b) and (d)

3. Maintenance of stonework involves in

(a) Removal of efflorescence

(b) Removal of stains

(c) Repair cracks

(d) Water proofing

(e) All the above

4. This type of joint is provided at the location where the construction is stopped at the end of day’s work so as to bridge the old work and new work by a proper bond, which is called as

(a) Expansion joint

(b) Contraction joint

(c) Construction joint

(d) (a) or (b)

(e) None of the above

5. Expansion and contraction joints are provided in all concrete structures when the length exceeds

(a) 5 m

(b) 8 m

(c) 10 m

(d) 12 m

(e) 20 m

6. The process of injecting mortar with low water-cement ratio at a high pressure through a nozzle to repair cracks in concrete is called

(a) Grouting

(b) Shortcrete

(c) Guniting

(d) Injecting

(e) None of the above

7. Leakage of flat roof can be attended by

(a) Providing adequate slope

(b) Junction of horizontal surface and vertical faces is to be provided with fillets

(c) Rain water entry to be checked

(d) Cracks in weathering courses are to be checked

(e) All the above

8. Maintenance of electrical system is attended by

(a) Providing ECCB trip switch

(b) High amperage gadgets are to be plugged tightly

(c) Phase-change device should be provided

(d) Performance of regulators, condensers, etc should be checked

(e) All the above

CHAPTER 31

Construction Planning and Scheduling

1. The process of devising of a scheme for doing, making or arranging a project before the commencement of a work is called

(a) Planning

(b) Scheduling

(c) Arranging

(d) Streamlining

(e) None of the above

2. Consideration of the main construction activities and all the supporting elements such as labour, material, equipment and expenditure is called

(a) Streamlining

(b) Scheduling

(c) Planning

(d) Arranging

(e) None of the above

3. Technical planning is carried out

(a) To finalise design and estimate

(b) To plan resources

(c) To decide executing authority

(d) To foresee obstacle

(e) All the above

4. Limitations of planning depends on

(a) Correct assumptions needed

(b) Planning is expensive

(c) Planning encourages false sense of activity

(d) (a) and (b)

(e) (a), (b) and (c)

5. Construction Schedule involves

(a) Number of activities and the stages

(b) Labour contribution

(c) Equipment required

(d) Quantity

(e) All the above

6. The project scheduling techniques are concerned with resource

(a) Materials

(b) Equipment

(c) Time

(d) Labor

(e) None of the above

7. Technical scheduling can be done effectively by the methods

(a) Bar chart

(b) Milestone chart

(c) Network analysis

(d) (a) and (b)

(e) None of the above

8. Overall economy of a project can be achieved by a thorough coordination in planning of services and the construction plant. This is done by

(a) Job Layout

(b) Materials and Labour

(c) Equipment

(d) (b) and (c)

(e) None of the above

CHAPTER 32

Construction Equipment

1. Procurement cost of an equipment involves in

(a) Cost price of the equipment

(b) Interest on money invested

(c) Taxes paid

(d) Insurance cost

(e) All the above

2. Operating cost depends mainly on

(a) Cost of investment and depreciation cost

(b) Cost of fuel and repair

(c) Cost of labour

(d) (a) and (b)

(e) (a), (b) and (c)

3. Hydraulic excavators are more advantages since

(a) Additional attachments can be fitted

(b) Efficient hydraulic-unit

(c) Efficient angle of dipping

(d) (a) and (b)

(e) (a) and (c)

4. This is a most popular shovel which consists of a boom, dipper stick, the bucket and the mechanism of operation. This shovel is called

(a) Dipper showel

(b) Drag showel

(c) Clamshell

(d) Hoe

(e) Drag line

5. Bulldozers can be used to haul materials up to

(a) 10 m

(b) 20 m

(c) 40 m

(d) 60 m

(e) 100 m

6. This is primarily a device for loading or finishing earth work. This is called

(a) Grader

(b) Tractor

(c) Shovel

(d) Hoe

(e) None of the above

7. Trenchers can be used to make trenches of width up to

(a) 18 m

(b) 16 m

(c) 14 m

(d) 12 m

(e) 10 m

8. This dewatering system can be installed outside the zone of construction operation and drainage is effected to the depth of excavation. This method of dewatering is called

(a) Single stage well-point

(b) Deep-well drainage

(c) Vacuum-dewatering

(d) Artesian dewatering

(e) Multiple-stage dewatering

9. When a direct electric current is passed through a saturated soil stratum, water moves towards the cathode and the water is removed at the cathode well. This method is called

(a) Vacuum-dewatering

(b) Deep-well drainage

(c) Electro-osmosis

(d) Current drainage method

(e) None of the above

10. Compaction is attained by applying the mechanical force by

(a) Rolling

(b) Kneading

(c) Vibrations

(d) Ramming

(e) Any one of above

11. This is the simplest form of hammer, which does not use any external power.

(a) Single acting hammer

(b) Double acting hammer

(c) Hydraulic hammer

(d) Drop hammer

(e) Vibratory hammer

12. Hauling equipment are given below. Identify the wrong one

(a) Trucks

(b) Dumpers

(c) Trailers

(d) Dump Trucks

(e) Lift Trucks

ANSWERS TO OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

Chapter 1

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (e)

6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (e)

Chapter 2

1. (e) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (c)

8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (e)

Chapter 3

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (a)

7. (e) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (a)

Chapter 4

1. (c) 2. (e) 3. (b) 4. (e) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (d)

Chapter 5

1. (e) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (e) 5. (a) 6. (e)

7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (e) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (e)

Chapter 6

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (e) 5. (a) 6. (e) 7. (b)

8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (a)

15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (b)

Chapter 7

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (e) 6. (c) 7. (b)

8. (d) 9. (e) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (e)

Chapter 8

1. (e) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (e) 5. (b) 6. (e) 7. (e)

8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (b)

15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (b)

Chapter 9

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (e) 5. (b)

Chapter 10

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (e) 4. (e) 5. (e) 6. (b) 7. (b)

8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (e) 14. (d)

15. (b) 16. (b)

Chapter 11

1. (e) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (e) 5. (e)

6. (a) 7. (e) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (e)

Chapter 12

1. (e) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b)

6. (e) 7. (c) 8. (e) 9. (c) 10. (d)

Chapter 13

1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (e) 4. (e) 5. (a) 6. (e)

7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (d)

Chapter 14

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (e) 4. (d) 5. (e)

6. (e) 7. (d) 8. (e) 9. (c)

Chapter 15

1. (c) 2. (e) 3. (d) 4. (e) 5. (e) 6. (d) 7. (c)

8. (d) 9. (e) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (a)

15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (e) 18. (e)

Chapter 16

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c)

6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c)

Chapter 17

1. (c) 2. (e) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (c)

6. (e) 7. (e) 8. (d) 9. (e)

Chapter 18

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (e) 5. (c)

6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (d)

Chapter 19

1. (d) 2. (e) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d)

6. (e) 7. (e) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (d)

Chapter 20

1. (b) 2. (e) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (a)

6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (e) 10. (a)

Chapter 21

1. (e) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (e) 7. (a)

8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (e)

Chapter 22

1. (e) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a)

6. (a) 7. (e) 8. (d)

Chapter 23

1. (c) 2. (e) 3. (e) 4. (b) 5. (b)

6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (d)

Chapter 24

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (e) 4. (c) 5. (c)

6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (e) 9. (c)

Chapter 25

1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (e)

6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (e) 9. (b) 10. (d)

Chapter 26

1. (e) 2. (d) 3. (e) 4. (e) 5. (b)

6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a)

Chapter 27

1. (e) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (c)

7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (e)

Chapter 28

1. (c) 2. (e) 3. (e) 4. (e) 5. (e)

6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (b)

Chapter 29

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (e) 4. (d) 5. (e) 6. (b)

7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (e) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (d)

Chapter 30

1. (e) 2. (e) 3. (e) 4. (c) 5. (d)

6. (c) 7. (e) 8. (e)

Chapter 31

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (e) 4. (e) 5. (e)

6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (a)

Chapter 32

1. (e) 2. (e) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (e) 6. (a)

7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (e) 11. (d) 12. (e)